I recently wrote an essay on the metaphysics of aesthetics, but it might also be fun to flip that around. So, consider the following...
Datum: the world, as we experience it, makes no sense.
1) The world in itself makes no sense, and our experiences portray it accurately.
2) The world fundamentally does make sense, but our experiences are systematically misleading.
Question: to what degree can the positions of individual metaphysicians (say on presentism vs. 4-Dism about time, etc.) be explained by a merely aesthetic preference for one of the above two stances?
Well, perhaps that's more a sociological question. I guess the aesthetic question is really which explanation is the more pleasing. Opinions, anyone?