Showing posts with label ethics - family. Show all posts
Showing posts with label ethics - family. Show all posts

Wednesday, May 07, 2008

Defining (Gender) Dysfunction

Helen drew my attention to a fascinating NPR story on transgender children: young boys who desire to wear dresses, and more generally self-identify as girls. One psychologist (Zucker) recommends trying to socialize them out of it -- take away their dolls and dresses, and pressure them to act more like boys. Another (Ehrensaft) is more liberal, suggesting that it's a non-issue, and children should feel free to develop however they're inclined, so long as it isn't causing other - real - problems. The article notes:

This divide is so intense that there is very little common ground. There is little common ground even in the ways that the issue is conceptualized.

Sounds like a call for philosophy! Only, there's not much room for pure (a priori) ethical theory here. It's clear enough that we should prefer whatever will best serve the interests of the child, and help them to grow into a happy, well-adjusted adult. So it's really an empirical issue: what are the consequences of the two approaches likely to be? How burdensome is it to grow up transgendered, and how does this compare to Zucker's coercive therapy? (Might the cure be worse than the "disease"?)

Any remaining philosophical dispute lies more in what we might call the philosophy of psychiatry, concerning what counts as a mental "disorder", in contrast to "normal" human variation. Ehrensaft likens transgenderism to such "natural" variations as homosexuality, whereas Zucker compares it to racial identity disorder:
If a black kid walked into a therapist's office saying he was really white, the goal of pretty much any therapist out there would be to make him try to feel more comfortable being black. They would assume his mistaken beliefs were the product of a dysfunctional environment — a dysfunctional family or a dysfunctional cultural environment that led him or her to engage in this wrongheaded and dangerous fantasy. This is how Zucker sees gender-disordered kids. He sees these behaviors primarily as a product of dysfunction.

This strikes me as badly confused. Presumably a disorder is to be defined as that which tends to impede one's living a flourishing life. But that's an entirely forward-looking dispositional property; it does not matter how it came about, so this talk of "products of dysfunction" seems confused and irrelevant. Indeed, given a sensible forward-looking conception, it's not clear why adopting a different ethnicity must be a "disorder" at all. (It's not like losing a limb.)

Maybe the thought is that the expressed desire is actually just a symptom of some more deep-rooted unhappiness or self-loathing, which would survive the desired change and cause more psychological problems down the road? That would be an intrinsic or internal problem. Alternatively, one might think that the desire is problematic purely for extrinsic, situational reasons, e.g. if one lives in a community of Xs, the desire to be not-X might make it more difficult for you to flourish in this particular context. This appears to be at least part of Zucker's objection:
He explained that unless Carol and her husband helped the child to change his behavior, as Bradley grew older, he likely would be rejected by both peer groups. Boys would find his feminine interests unappealing. Girls would want more boyish boys. Bradley would be an outcast.

But there's nothing inherently wrong with outcasts. ('Misfit' is a relative term, remember!) The problem is with the society which doesn't accept or accommodate them. So it's really just the social stigma we should be worried about. But then I wonder why Zucker rejects the homosexuality analogy?

A final possibility is that he thinks it is a disorder in virtue of resting on false beliefs, or an inaccurate conception of the situation (in some sense). The black child who wants to be white may have internalized false beliefs about the inherent inferiority of blacks which explain (away) his preference. We may hold that preferences based on false beliefs lack normative weight and fail to qualify as 'true values', so it is better to change the misguided preference than to cater to it. But this normative principle isn't obviously true: we cater to poor taste and religious preferences all the time. Sometimes it's a better idea to just go with the flow rather than to insist on improving people.

But the point is moot because it doesn't seem that transgender-inclined children have false beliefs in any case. They don't, so far as I'm aware, believe that their birth sex is objectively "inferior" or anything like that. They just feel more drawn to the gender norms of the opposite sex. They're not making any error. So, again, I think Zucker's stance doesn't stand up to scrutiny.

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Thursday, February 07, 2008

Rape by Fraud

Suppose an evil twin tricks his brother's wife into having sex with him (by pretending to be his brother, her husband). This is presumably rape. The deception seems, in this case, to nullify the target's consent (much as hypnosis, brainwashing, or immaturity might). We might capture this by suggesting that the woman only consented to have sex with her husband, not with his evil twin. The action she actually ended up with is not the one she consented to.

However, it isn't clear that misinformation always nullifies consent. Suppose a Tom Cruise impersonator picks up a girl at the bar, who would not have gone home with him if she knew his true identity. There's something morally dubious about this, but intuitively it doesn't seem to reach the bar for rape. But why not? Can't she say that she only consented to have sex with TC, not with his lookalike?

An obvious difference between the two cases is that only the former involves a pre-existing relationship/personal connection. But why does this make such a difference? One possibility is that we clearly have a weighty and legitimate interest in discriminating between potential sexual partners on the basis of existing personal connections. Impersonation of a personal acquaintance is thus an especially egregious form of fraudulent exploitation. But one's interest in having sex with a stranger who truly satisfies certain conditions may not call for quite the same degree of respect.

Does that sound right? It seems a bit harsh to delegitimize certain preferences like that. But I'm not sure how else to explain the moral difference between the two cases. (Any suggestions?) Also, does this proposal yield the intuitively right results in other cases, or does it need refinement?

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Thursday, January 10, 2008

Myopic Medical Ethics

Janet Stemwedel has an interesting post describing "considerations from medical ethics that might explain why a birth control pill for men has not happened yet." Apparently the standard understanding of medical 'ethics' requires that any health risks involved in a new treatment are outweighed by specifically health benefits for the treated individual. It's insane.

First, health is not all that matters in life. Indeed, the value of good health is entirely derivative of how it enables one to live a good/flourishing life more generally. So it's just weirdly myopic to look only at the health benefits of a treatment, and ignore everything else that matters (which is, after all, a whole damn lot). Reproduction, in particular, is a big -- life-changing -- deal. As Janet says, "men have an interest in controlling their fertility, too." Unwanted paternity could really mess up a guy's life! This fact ought to carry some ethical weight.

Second, the individual focus is jarringly odd, especially in the context of intimate relationships. We care about the health and welfare of those we love, as we do our own. So in weighing the costs and benefits of some action, I care about more than just the benefits to me. If some course of action would benefit my partner, that's clearly a reason in its favour, as I see things.

There are things we care about besides physical health, and people we care about besides ourselves. It is ridiculous and myopic for medical "ethicists" to dismiss these legitimate values and interests. In fact, I don't see the need for ethicists here at all. I certainly don't appreciate their "concern" to limit my options. Just provide all the relevant information, then let me make an informed decision for myself, thank you very much.

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Tuesday, December 11, 2007

Biased Accommodations

As a society we tend to be much more accommodating of some commitments (e.g. religious or familial) than others (hobbies, etc.). Is this fair? Infinite Injury offers an example from UC Berkeley:

The clear sense these rules convey is that the instructor is expected to bend their rules if they might create difficulty or hardship for someone who wishes to respect a religious obligation but that a student who is going to be absent for some other extra-curricular activity undertakes a greater obligation if they want to miss class. Now one might justify such a policy on the grounds that some athletes or musicians are going to be out of town on a large number of dates or that religion is more important to people. However, it would be easy to give every student a certain number of absences they can exercise using the easier standard and there are many students who are more casual about the religious observances they ask to be excused for then athletes are about their games...

The things that we [non-believers] may really really care about get no accommodation while just someone has a ridiculous belief about some historical event we have to bend over to accommodate them. Now I fully understand that the potential for religious discrimination is great but if we weren’t implicitly endorsing religion as something more important than say a rocketry hobby we would use some fully neutral policy that gave everyone the chance to do what they really cared about.

That seems exactly right to me. For a more controversial example, then, consider the view that we ("society", i.e. employers and institutions) ought to make a special effort to accommodate those who choose to raise children. I'm sympathetic to this view. But is it biased? Why is the choice to raise children more worthy of accommodation than the choice to write a novel or compose a symphony in one's spare time? Perhaps we ought to be more accommodating in general, not singling out 'family support' as a uniquely worthy form of support. Fairer, perhaps, to enable individuals to pursue whatever projects are most important to them -- and for many this will happen to be childrearing, but for others it may not.

What is the best argument for singling out childcare? (I would look for consequentialist considerations, e.g. the impact that parenting has on the next generation. But let's bracket that for now.) Feminists sometimes claim that lack of support for women who want to both work and raise children is sexist. But it isn't entirely clear why this is so. (We can't always get everything we want. That's an annoying fact of life, not necessarily a sign of oppression.) Back to II:
The arguments given about the problems for women with babies in academia all focused on the extra time and energy women put into childcare. Now if women put more effort into children simply because they find raising children more rewarding (relative to men) the fact more women than men drop out to raise children is actually the desired outcome. It’s what would result from perfectly fair mutually beneficial trades. On the other hand if you think that the extra effort women put into childrearing isn’t the result of fair deals then the target should be on encouraging women to put less effort into childrearing, not making the unfair division of labor slightly less bad for women.

And a thought-provoking analogy:
Men are underrepresented in K-12 teaching. The reason most men abandon teaching is the difficulty of taking a high paying job in business and being a teacher. Therefore we should provide special benefits and accommodations to let men teach while still working as businessmen in the day. Obviously this argument is fallacious. If people are leaving some profession because they’ve found a better offer they don’t deserve special treatment as a result and it should only be fixed if luring them back provides a good value. Thus whether or not this is a leak we should be plugging is an empirical economic question and it’s only in the face of real data on marginal costs and productivities that we can answer whether or not we should address the ‘problem’.

Perhaps childrearing and religion are presupposed as normal components of the good life, and so it is thought that they should not be subject to trade-offs in the manner of our (other) chosen values. Writing a novel is a choice you make, and a somewhat peculiar one at that; having kids, on the other hand, is simply par for the course in a 'normal' life. This difference in normality may be thought to underwrite the special obligation to accommodate the one choice more than the other. But why should normality matter?

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Friday, October 26, 2007

Job Sharing

Academic careers can be difficult to reconcile with family life. The job market is tough enough for a single philosopher -- the chances of a couple securing work at the same institution are generally very slim. So, that sucks.

The best solution I've heard of is 'job sharing', which is just what it sounds like: two people, one job. It's a great deal for the institution: the couple applicant may have twice as many areas of specialization and teaching competence than usual, for example. And they may be expected to do twice as much research -- or perhaps even more, since each of the two individuals has only half the usual teaching load to bear. Yet they cost only a single salary.

Why does this not happen more often? Do you think job sharing is likely to become more common in future?

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Tuesday, September 18, 2007

An obligation to have sex?

There's an interesting exchange going on at Ask Philosophers about whether one can be morally obliged to have sex with one's partner. (Ignoring outlandish cases where aliens will otherwise blow up the world, etc.) Sally Haslanger argues not, appealing to one's inalienable right to one's own body. Alan Soble responds that we may also want to take into account the virtue of benevolence, considerations of "orgasmic (distributive) justice", and prudence / maintaining the relationship. Interesting stuff. It reminds me of some of the old comments here. (My initial intuitions are more in line with Haslanger's, but I don't know how justifiable they are at the end of the day. I mean, the idea of reluctant sexual relations seems simply awful. But if one is tossing up various possible options - all enjoyable - and it just happens that one would prefer reading even more than sex from a purely self-interested viewpoint, then in that case I can see that love of one's partner might reasonably motivate a good person to have sex instead. A less favoured option may still be viewed favourably, after all. But if the act were engaged in reluctantly, that would seem to change its very nature -- much for the worse!) Any thoughts?

Aside: one curious implication of utilitarianism seems to be that women ought to be a lot more promiscuous. Could this ground an especially strong 'demandingness objection' to the theory?

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Saturday, August 18, 2007

Seduction

Is seduction immoral? One reason for thinking it ethically problematic is that it seems to be essentially manipulative: the seducer seeks to entice the target into acting against their better judgment. They are thus treated as a mere means, which disrespects their autonomy/agency. (The problem generalizes to any form of non-rational persuasion, whereby one attempts to shape others' ends or get them to do what they normally wouldn't.)

On the other hand, there is Mary Coughlan singing, "I want to be seduced..." If the experience is fun or gratifying, it may be an instance of merely 'local' irrationality that can fit unproblematically within one's larger life plan. And then it's not really disrespectful at all: the seducer is acting in line with the ultimate ends of their target. So we're left with the somewhat trite conclusion that whether it's okay to treat someone a certain way simply depends on whether they want to be so treated. Hmph.

So here's a more interesting question: what should one do if the other's desires are unknown? What should the default assumption be? (Asking is not always a neutral option -- cf. "would you like a surprise birthday party?") I suppose as long as you recognize that the other person's ends matter - even if you're not yet entirely sure what they are - then you probably can't go too far wrong. But I'd be curious to hear what others make of the whole issue.

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Impermanent Relationships

Over at Right Reason, Alexander Pruss asks:

Is there value (both instrumental and non-instrumental, but especially non-instrumental) in romantic relationships that terminate without having led to marriage or some other form of commitment for life? For instance, some people think such relationships provide opportunities for many goods, while others see such relationships as failures: who is right? Can there be a value (instrumental or non-instrumental?) in having romantic relationships one does not expect to lead to marriage or some other form of commitment for life?

Are these serious questions? I guess someone might consider a past relationship to have "failed" in the sense that it didn't yield everything they might have hoped for, i.e. they are disappointed by how things turned out. But it would seem crazy to think that all impermanent relationships must be unsatisfactory on balance, let alone that they have no value whatsoever. As I wrote last year:
I think it’s a deeply pernicious cultural framework that leads one to only value a romantic partner insofar as they might eventually become one’s future spouse. (Though rarely recognized as such, it’s dehumanizing in much the same way that “using” someone for sex is. Both involve a failure to recognize the intrinsic value of knowing the other person, and hence devalue the relationship.)

What sorts of considerations might lead one to conclude otherwise?

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Sunday, August 12, 2007

YouTube Feminism

This is an important discussion (hat-tip):

They point out that hateful, sex-obsessed trolls may intimidate women (and others) out of participating in the online public sphere -- which effectively amounts to cultural disenfranchisement. This is a really serious issue, so it's good to see it highlighted.

I found one section a bit jarring, though. The Resident claims that the trolls sound like guys who won't "get laid", and Emergency Cheese adds that they might need to try "a different tactic" -- all of which just seems to reinforce the lamentable assumption that the measure of a man is how many women he can trick into sleeping with him. Maybe they were just being pragmatic, and tapping in to the trolls' existing sex-obsession may be one way to get them to behave less hatefully. But still, as long as we're talking about disturbing cultural trends, I think the sex-obsession itself is another problem.

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Monday, May 21, 2007

Virtual Violation

Brandon offers 'Some Disjointed Thoughts About Rape', including the following:

Virtual violence is not violence; but virtual violation is violation... The disanalogy between violence and sex arises from the fact that violence is a physical activity whereas sex is a physically expressible mental activity.

I'm not sure about this. It seems like there's also a mental component to violence, that could potentially be separated from its typical physical expression. This should capture the kind of violation that also occurs through, say, verbal bullying. Since it's possible for virtual (non-sexual) violence to still be violating, the posited disanalogy seems a bit artificial.

What we really need, I think, is to disambiguate two senses of "virtual violation":
(1) A real violation that occurs within a simulated, or 'virtual', setting.
(2) A merely simulated/'virtual' violation.

The distinction generalizes. Consider the example of "virtual bullying". In the first case, one could genuinely bully a fellow game-player whilst inside the game, if the bully intended to use the game to (emotionally) hurt the other player. But in the second case, I might merely simulate it, i.e. role-play having my character "hassle" another, whose real-life player understands that no real animosity is meant. In the second case, but not the first, it's just a game.

Similarly, two people might have (real) sexual relations within a virtual world, or they might merely simulate it -- depending (at least in part) on their respective intentions, I suppose.

One can imagine a game, then, where "virtual rape" occurs purely in the second sense. Perhaps it's part of the rules of the game that if you lose to the boss monster, it will "rape" and "kill" your avatar. If that's a normal part of the game, I assume no-one would feel violated by it. (Especially if the boss monster is just a computer program, rather than another player. But even in the latter case. Real-world sexual roleplaying provides a vivid example of this -- handcuffs, anyone?)

The distinction, I suppose, concerns whether real consent is given for one's avatar to be acted upon against its (merely virtual/represented) "consent". By playing a game, one gives a sort of global implicit consent to all the normal happenings -- getting killed by monsters, and so forth. (Even though in the "local" moment of a game you try your best to survive, of course!) So we can also imagine cases where a player gives a similar global consent for their avatar to be virtually "raped" in certain legitimate circumstances. The problem with the Second Life virtual rapes, of course, is that no such global consent was given. Virtual rape is not a "normal" or legitimate kind of interaction within the world of Second Life; it is not what the players signed up for. So when their avatars are violated in these ways, so -- to a degree -- is the player.

The virtual violation was a real violation, because not only was virtual consent missing -- so was real consent. This general principle applies to non-sexual virtual interactions too, e.g. virtual bullying. The difference we see between this and normal cases of "virtual murder" isn't so much in the type of act, but in the type of consent.

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Monday, May 14, 2007

Is Santa a Lie?

Richard Brown argues that it's wrong for parents to lie to their kids about Santa:

It is commonly recognized that we have a duty to be truthful and yet millions of Americans engage in the most elaborate deceit imaginable all aimed at duping their children... Santa Claus is portrayed as real, not only in the story but also by the parents. No parents pretend that Darth Vader is real but when I was on a plane on Christmas Eve the PILOT announced over the intercom that he had spotted Santa on the radar!!!! And, while it may be Ok to omit certain information in order to protect a child it is absolutely immoral to actively perpetuate a lie.

However, I don't really think this is (necessarily) lying. Such an interpretation would be excessively literal-minded. Not all statements are genuine assertions, meant to be taken literally. Kids are well versed in pretense, as Chris explains at Mixing Memory:
Cognitive psychologists, especially Jaqueline Woolley, have developed rather sophisticated ways of understanding children's ability to distinguish fantasy and reality. As I've discussed before, children are pretty good at separating fantasy from reality, but in cases of acceptable fantasies like Santa Claus and imaginary friends, children seem to exhibit a third ontological category, "pretend," which they have in addition to "real" and "unreal." While there are individual differences in children's ability to make the fantasy-reality distinction, overall, by about age 3, children are pretty damn good at telling pretend from real, even if they may play as though the pretend is as real as anything else.

So, I think it's a good thing for adults to engage children's imaginations by pretending with them that Santa is real. I agree that parents shouldn't deceive their kids, e.g. into thinking that Santa is real in the same way as Grandma. But children are sensitive to playfulness, and should pick up on the game if their parents play it right. At least, that strikes me as the ideal. To joylessly pop the pretense is not to advance the cause of truth and learning. It's merely to call a halt to play.

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Tuesday, May 01, 2007

Is Corporal Punishment So Bad?

Punishment is never particularly pleasant, of course. But is there any principled reason why corporal punishment must be worse than other kinds? In practice, it may be more subject to escalation and abuse. But suppose we could avoid that risk (e.g. through mechanized administration). Would that make it okay, or is the infliction of physical pain different in principle from other kinds of punishment?

If anything, momentary pain seems like the perfect punishment. We are strongly motivated to avoid it, and yet -- unlike incarceration -- it is over in moments and has no lasting ill-consequences. (Prisons should be used only for purposes of removing threats from society. They're too inefficient for mere punishment.) Perhaps fines and "community service" are better still, since they produce benefits to others rather than merely imposing harms. But corporal punishment could replace jail-time as the ultimate punishment, for when all others have failed. Why not?

Criminals aside, consider children. Some people claim that smacking is an inexcusable act of violence, intrinsically "abusive" no matter how light it may be. But again, why is physical discipline picked out for special treatment? Isn't this arbitrary?

Perhaps we have (indirect utilitarian) reason to promote the norm that one's body is inviolate. But parenting and legal punishment are a special cases, where we may allow things that we wouldn't normally allow (e.g. locking people up against their will!). So I don't see why we couldn't do just as well with a more restricted norm of bodily autonomy that can be overriden by appropriate authorities (i.e. a young child's parents, and the legal justice system). It needn't have broader implications for how we treat each other in society.

Compare the extreme case of torture. Torture is intrinsically problematic because it essentially involves the use of extreme pain to induce psychological breakdown (and subsequent compliance). The mark of abuse is that it leaves the person physically or mentally "broken", unable to function properly as a fully autonomous agent. This consequence is atrocious.

But if light physical punishment can safely avoid such effects, what else is left that's so objectionable? Perhaps being physically dominated by another induces feelings of helplessness. But it is the domination -- i.e. arbitrary power -- that's the problem here, rather than the infliction of physical pain per se. I agree that this is a severe risk in practice, but suppose for sake of argument that corporal punishment could be delivered in a measured and non-dominating way. Would it still be objectionable, even then?

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Wednesday, April 18, 2007

Banning Smacking

Background: New Zealand law currently accommodates smacking by allowing the use of "reasonable force" in disciplining a child to count as a legal defence against charges of assault. Occasionally, juries have acquitted serious child abusers on this basis. Green MP Sue Bradford has responded by proposing a bill that will remove this legal defence, thus effectively outlawing smacking. It's popular among politicians, but less so among the general public.

My analysis: Frankly, I'm amazed there's any controversy here at all. Given that no-one really wants to prosecute all parents for smacking, outlawing it just seems like an obviously bad idea, for two reasons. (1) It's patently unjust to remove a legitimate defence merely because the occasional "false positive" lets guilty people go free. Surely, if a defendent's use of force really is reasonable, then it's not abuse or assault. Justice demands that our legal system recognize this. (2) As a general principle, it's always a bad idea to have unenforced (or inconsistently enforced) laws. (It's asking for trouble to grant such discretionary powers to the police. Much better to leave them with jurors.)

National MPs have proposed instead to clarify what is meant by "reasonable force", rather than disallowing it altogether. This would solve the stated problem of child abuse acquittals, without creating any new problems. Yet Bradford et al oppose any such amendment, which suggests that they're being dishonest -- the "stated problem" isn't really what they're concerned about after all. Rather, they want to send a message that any form of physical discipline is unacceptable.

No Right Turn exemplifies this position with his blind insistence that "hitting people is assault." As if there were no relevant difference between a light smack and beating someone bloody. Such a failure of discrimination is, as PC puts it, "just insane." There are important distinctions to be made here. That's not to say that smacking is necessarily okay, but it is to say that no moral insight is to be found from those who think that the issue may be settled by simple-mindedly asserting that "hitting people is assault."

[Aside: I normally have a lot of respect for NRT, but that last post was a real disappointment. He blithely slanders opponents of the smacking ban as being in cahoots with "fundamentalist Christians", and characterizes them as "want[ing] bad parents to be able to continue to assault their children." That sort of bullshit is precisely what's wrong with political debate in our society.]

Now, I think we need to distinguish two issues:
(1) Is smacking (generally) bad parenting?
and
(2) Should smacking be illegal?

Personally, I think that smacking is rarely the best option. But that's just my tentative opinion. It's not obvious how to be a good parent -- and I doubt there's any one template that's universally applicable -- so I think we should give plenty of leeway for different parenting styles, including ones that involve some light physical discipline.

(Aside: I find it strange how some proponents get so fixated on the awfulness of physical pain, when psychological pain can be far worse - and more enduring - than a light smack that's forgotten a moment later. Emotional abuse thus strikes me as a far more serious concern!)

Is there any evidence that light smacking has harmful consequences (e.g. raising the likelihood that children will act violently later in life)? If so, perhaps it would be appropriate to attach some social stigma to it, publicly criticize the practice, and suggest better alternatives, etc. (Much as we might for other instances of tolerably bad parenting, e.g. swearing in front of kids.) But that still wouldn't justify criminalizing it.

Given the social controversy over what constitutes good parenting, it seems entirely inappropriate for the state to be mandating any particular answer. Of course there are limits, as all reasonable people agree: we shouldn't tolerate serious abuse, or other gross harms. But smacking is plainly not in the same league. It's a trivial harm, if it's any harm at all. Bradford's proposal is like passing a law mandating what parents must tell their kids about Santa Claus ("Santa is a lie, and lying is wrong, end of story", blah). It's totally inappropriate, even if they happen to be right about what "the perfect parent" would do. It just isn't their place to say.

In a liberal democracy, the government shouldn't try to micromanage people's lives. It certainly has no business foreclosing public debate over such a contentious cultural issue, mandating one particular parenting style over another. For issues where reasonable people may disagree, the appropriate response for a liberal state is to uphold autonomy and pluralism. Let parents decide for themselves how best to raise their own children. I expect they'll do a better job than the government would.

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Tuesday, August 15, 2006

Gender, Family Names, and Pronouns

Should women adopt their husband's surname upon marrying? "It's up to her" is the obvious answer, but I'm curious as to what the most reasonable decision for an engaged couple would be. A quick disclaimer: none of my conclusions should be imposed on anyone, of course! I'm merely interested in how they might address the question.

Now, one option would be for the married couple to retain their distinct family names. But this might be awkward if they have children: whose name should the children get? The mother has a distinctive link in virtue of bearing the children. Meritocrats might thereby favour her right to the family name. Egalitarians might use the very same datum to argue that the father should be compensated for lacking this historical connection; perhaps a symbolic connection to his surname would help bring him closer to his children? (I don't really think either "connection" is particularly significant compared to the non-symbolic acts of actual parenting, but let's bracket that for sake of this comparatively trivial discussion.) Perhaps they could alternate, if planning several children, or flip a coin. But however it goes, the symbolized disunity seems unfortunate -- not the end of the world, of course, but it would seem ideal for the entire family to share their "family name". (I imagine that alternatives might also get administratively inconvenient at times.)

The flipside of the problem, of course, is that it seems unfair to ask just one partner to replace their surname with the other's. For the woman, especially, this symbolic act may be associated with oppressive patriarchal traditions. So, if a one-way sacrifice must be made, it might be most reasonable for the husband to instead adopt his wife's surname. On the other hand, this may be socially awkward precisely because of its untraditional nature. In any case, again, either way seems less than ideal: one's family name reflects their roots, and it seems unfortunate to have to give this up entirely upon starting a new family. (Though of course if either partner doesn't give a hoot, then there's no problem.)

Some opt for hyphenization to combine the two names, which has nice symbolic value but is clearly unsustainable. (Won't somebody think of the children? What are the next generation supposed to do when they want to marry? Give birth to a triply-hyphenated monster?) This option also suffers from the more general objection that hyphens are annoying.

The ideal solution, I think, may be to follow Mother Nature's genetic example and merge (parts of) the two names into one: hence a partnered "Smith" and "Jones" might become a family of "Smones". Nice symbolism, perfect equality, and no hyphens -- what more could you ask for? ;-)

While on the topic of gender symbolism and controversial trivialities, I guess I should also address the vexed question of generic third-person singular pronouns. Here a merging solution seems impossible, and efforts to explicitly include both genders (e.g. "he or she", "s/he", etc.) are too ugly to use in writing that's meant to be read.

I take it that the pronouns "he" and "she" can be used in a gender-neutral sense to refer to a generic third person. Nevertheless, feminists could have a legitimate complaint about always using "he" in such contexts. For even if technically gender-neutral in denotation, the connotations are clearly another matter. And if such use has the practical consequence of alienating female readers or reinforcing male privilege, then that's plainly a problem no matter what the dictionary says.

I usually try to mix them up a bit, rather than using either generic pronoun exclusively. That seems a decent enough compromise. (I'm also a fan of singular "they", at least in contexts where it doesn't sound too awkward to my ear.) But let me propose a better ideal: writers should use the generic pronoun that is oppositely gendered from themselves.

The great advantage of this policy is that it is naturally proportional and self-correcting. If there is a predominance of males in one field, then the writings will be correspondingly dominated by female-friendly pronouns. (This might not have any significant effect, but it can't hurt.) If the gender balance changes over time, the risk of "matriarchal bias" is naturally mitigated (however slightly) by the male-friendly pronouns used by all the female writers who are taking over the field.

Does such a pronoun policy deserve to become the new politically correct norm? (It might need at least one exception: if the gender imbalance is very excessive, it might be appropriate for the minority group to express solidarity by use of their own gendered pronoun.) What do you think?


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Saturday, June 10, 2006

Public Sex, Privacy and Shame

The Volokh Conspiracy has an interesting series of posts on whether public sex and nudity should be legal. Assuming that no real harm is done, it's hard to see why not, unless you consider "yuck!" (or "I'm offended!") a legitimate reason for restricting others' liberty. I'm inclined to think that such matters should instead be regulated by informal social norms. But that's not really what I'm interested in here. Given the prevailing attitudes, having sex in public is extremely rude and inconsiderate, whether or not you consider that a criminal offense. What I'm wondering is: are the prevailing attitudes reasonable ones? Should we find public sex offensive? Is it wrong for reasons apart from any arbitrary offense it may cause?

An appeal to cultural liberalism could justify a general policy of reticence. As Nagel writes (HT: Velleman):

[B]oundaries between what is publicly exposed and what is not exist for a reason. We will never reach a point at which nothing that anyone does disgusts anyone else. We can expect to remain a sexual world deeply divided by various lines of imaginative incomprehension and disapproval. So conventions of reticence and privacy serve a valuable function in keeping us out of each other's faces.

Such compromise is pragmatically sensible. But, politics aside, it leaves open my questions about which stance is the ideally rational one. (The whole point of cultural liberalism is that we should tolerate potential irrationality through tactful non-acknowledgment, rather than violating others' privacy in attempts to enforce conformity to our own conception of perfection.) To draw any stronger conclusions, we will need to look more closely at the nature of privacy and shame.

The right to privacy is of monumental importance, for reasons explained in the latter half of my post 'Living as Storytelling' (with further reference to Nagel). The flourishing autonomous individual must not be constantly burdened with the weight of the public's gaze. He has a right to be free of it. But what if he (incomprehensibly, to me) chooses such exposure? Our rights are granted for our own sakes, and we may refrain from exercising them if we so please. A right to privacy in one's sex life does not by itself entail a duty to refrain from sex in public. So what must be established here is no mere right to privacy, but the more dubious claim that we have a duty to keep our business private. Where would such a duty come from?

Laurence Thomas writes:
Privacy is about two things that operate in tandem: what others have access to without seeking permission and what people can offer to others without seeking permission... Self-disclosure is not appropriate merely because a person want[s] to do so.

Presumably this is due to consideration for the listener, and particularly the desire to avoid causing offence. If both speaker and audience welcomed such disclosure, then it's surely unobjectionable. So this brings us back to my original question: are there any good reasons why we should be offended by another's self-disclosure? Or are our feelings here fairly arbitrary, and hence the need to respect them (i.e. the "duty of privacy") correspondingly contingent?

What of shame? Drawing on Velleman, my earlier post suggested that feelings of shame derive from awareness of one's failings as a self-presenting agent, due to unintentional self-disclosure. But if the disclosure is voluntary and intentional (cf. porn stars), then no shame results. We might say such people are "shameless". We feel that they shouldn't be so keen to expose themselves. But why not? That's the crucial question I haven't seen anyone address yet.

The closest is Laurence Thomas' claim that "a very clear indication that a person does not take himself sufficiently seriously is just the fact that the individual discloses way too much about himself." Is that true though? Why should such openness indicate a lack of self-respect (rather than, say, abundant self-confidence)? Perhaps the idea is that we need to have a restricted public persona, while holding something back, in order to be fully human. But again, it's easier to offer such proposals than to justify them. Perhaps excessive public openness precludes private intimacy: there's just nothing special left to share. Shamelessness might then be seen as a crime against one's intimates, or even against one's own humanity.

But all that sounds a little flimsy to me. Does anyone have any better ideas? In the absence of such, I have trouble seeing any wrongmaking features intrinsic to shamelessness. Perhaps the only real problem with it is the extrinsic worry about needlessly causing offence to others. (What do you think? Comments welcome.)

There are special cases, of course. In response to Sage's post on public masturbation, one person commented:
a person who is masturbating in public while looking at another person is making that person a part of their sex act, often without the other person's consent. that's why public masturbation makes me angry - if someone is watching me while they jack off, they're making me a sex object and they're including me in something sexual without my permission.

This bears clarification, however, for it risks implying "thoughtcrime". The problem cannot simply be that they've made you their "intentional object" (i.e. the object of their thoughts) -- I assume there's nothing wrong with sexual fantasy. One needn't ask another's permission merely to think about them, even in a sexual way. Rather, the problem here must involve the blatant disclosure of such thoughts. And this case plausibly goes beyond the mere risk of causing offense. Rather, the action seems to have overtones of aggression or disrespect. One supposes that the twisted individual's intention is not merely to enjoy the thought of you (which is surely innocent enough on its own), but rather to demean you, to announce to the world that he only cares about you as an instrument to achieving his own ends. One supposes that he might just as well spit on you when he's done.

The suppositions might not always apply, but they certainly indicate a class of public sexual activity that would be grievously immoral. The problem there derives not from general concerns about excessive self-disclosure, nor sexual prudishness specifically, but rather the vicious and degrading intentions that were expressed in that particular case. Being dependent on this social communication, I suspect that the moral status of public masturbation is highly dependent on social context. The case described above depends heavily on the backdrop of a misogynistic culture, for instance. Without that cultural background, the intentions communicated by the action might be very different indeed, and perhaps entirely innocent. (We might imagine a culture where such behaviour was interpreted as a polite compliment on one's appearance, for instance!)

For a rather different case, we might also imagine a shameful creature so overcome by desire at seeing a topless woman walking down the street that he simply cannot restrain himself. If we stipulate that he feels no ill will towards those exposed to his self-gratification, then he seems more deserving of pity than moral outrage. The earlier discussion implies that he will feel great shame for his lack of self-control. The rest of us may disapprove of his sub-human failure, but in a very different way from the previous case. This guy's pitiful behaviour communicates his powerlessness before the Other. The earlier case involved deliberate action meant to communicate the actor's power over the Other. ("I can do what I want with you, and there's nothing you can do about it." -- I think Sage metaphorically dubbed this "rape at a distance" in her comment thread.) So, some important differences there, I think.

Right, I'm all thought out, curious though these issues are. Your turn...

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Saturday, May 13, 2006

On rejection, taste, and value

Recall that the self-deprecating romantic might (negatively) revise his opinion of any goddess woman who would settle for so lowly a creature as he. I now want to explore the opposite idea: that someone with high self-esteem might think less of anyone with the poor taste to reject him!

It's a familiar enough idea. A young child, pained by another's insults, might be comforted by his mother with the suggestion, "You wouldn't want to be friends with such a nasty person anyway." Similarly, a person whose immense beauty was "all on the inside" (so to speak) might be comforted in face of romantic rejection with the friendly suggestion that "Such a shallow person doesn't deserve you anyway." In both cases, the sheer fact that someone would devalue you in such a way is presented as a reason for not taking their evaluations seriously. It's a comforting thought, to be sure. But is it a reasonable one?

We surely cannot be granted universal immunity here. Another's low opinion of us can sometimes be justified, after all. If we want an accurate self-conception, we must be willing to consider others' criticisms seriously, painful though this may be. On the other hand, this may only apply on a fairly specific level. A person may be sub-par in various particular respects. But I have trouble imagining a person being thoroughly worthless in themselves (or "in general", where this is not the same thing as averaging their particular qualities; rather it is the idea of 'bare personhood', or what lies beneath the particulars. Cf. Velleman on Love). It's all too easy for us to not truly see each other, to not appreciate all that is there. Whenever I've caught glimpses of that "all" in another, I can't help but feel a kind of awed respect for it, i.e. for them. So if someone were to devalue you generally, I'm inclined to think this must be an error on their part. They simply aren't seeing the light that would dazzle them if they could.

Still, such glimses are so rare that it would be unreasonable to blame someone for failing to see this light. Iris Murdoch once wrote that "love is the extremely difficult realisation that something other than oneself is real". There's something to that - it's very hard to fully comprehend the reality and value of others. Especially if we don't much try. Such blindness might be blameworthy in some specific circumstances, say if one failed to love a family member. ("You've known each other your whole lives! How could you still not see them?") But in most cases, that's simply the way of things. Every person deserves to be loved. But not every person can love them.

So rejection needn't entail wholesale despair. To be unloved - though undeniably painful - is not to be unlovable, for no person is ever the latter (in either its modal or normative sense). But we may accept this without thereby blaming the rejector. Their oversight is understandable. At most, the rejected might reasonably feel disappointed that the other wasn't more willing to "look" for them. But of course disappointment is not condemnation.

The above arguments are very general in scope, however. Perhaps we need instead to address the more specific circumstances described at the start. So let us move beyond consideration of self-love (the recognition - and hence valuing - of one's own personhood) to that of self-esteem (the valuing of one's own particular qualities). The person with high self-esteem takes themselves to be skilled or talented, or otherwise worthy of note, in various particular respects. These are taken to not be outweighed by particular vices, such as being a dirty, smelly, asshole. As the qualities in question are readily recognizable, one would expect others to hold you in similarly high esteem. They should thus want to be closer to you, want to get to know you better, and so forth. We might say that to have high self-esteem is simply to take oneself to warrant this kind of response in others. But then, insofar as the rejector fails to respond in the appropriate way to your obvious qualities, they might be held to demonstrate poor taste. ("Their loss," you might say.)

I've yet to bring into consideration the distinctive feature of romantic relationships, i.e. sexual attraction. It might well be that the other recognizes and is appropriately (albeit platonically) drawn to your obvious qualities. But they just think you're batshit ugly (nothing personal, I'm sure).

Is it "shallow" to avoid intimacy with someone solely on the basis of their physical features? I'm not sure what to make of this. On the one hand, I'm inclined to go pop-sentimentalist and say, "You can't help who you're attracted to. It's just the way things are." But on the other hand, I'm not convinced that's true. If one's spouse has a disfiguring accident, one wouldn't cease to love them, even romantically. I've read a bit from conservative Christians - like Macht - who have a rather "unromantic" view of romantic love as a choice rather than an uncontrollable feeling, and a lot of what they say here (as opposed to every other topic under the sun) sort of makes sense.

A key question here is whether romantic rejection entails a kind of devaluation. The pop-sentimentalist view provides a convenient way to deny this. You can say, "Oh, no, I think you're wonderful in every way, I just don't feel that way about you." - and that lack of feeling is taken to be a brute fact about the speaker, and not any kind of rational response to, or evaluation of, the rejected. But is this really plausible? I don't think our emotions are so disconnected from our reasoned appreciation of value. Indeed, the claim in quotes sounds deeply incoherent to my ear. Surely if you considered someone wonderful in every way, then you would feel "that way" about them? So the fact that you don't entails a kind of negative evaluation of them. For whatever reason - and there must be some reason, even if it's not transparent - you think they're not good enough for you.

That's why it's so painful to be rejected. There's no reason to feel bad about someone lacking some brute inexplicable feeling. But if they're judging you to be "sub-par", then that's clearly something different.

What if they were to make the more qualified claim: "I think you're wonderful in every non-physical way, and would love to be friends. I just think you're batshit ugly, and so don't feel 'that way' about you."

The discussion above suggests that it might still have been possible for you to have a great relationship. But that alone doesn't suffice to establish that the rejector is "shallow" for not wanting to try it. That would be to disallow the consideration of aesthetic values, and it isn't clear that there's any reasonable basis for such disqualification. Sure, aesthetic values shouldn't trump all; it would be shallow to consider them and nothing else. But it is surely reasonable to consider them alongside everything else ('depth' doesn't require blindness), which opens the possibility of their outweighing other values, depending on what precisely one is looking for in a romantic partner.

This complicates the rejection-as-criticism account, because aesthetic criticism seems less objective than other sorts. So perhaps we can cede some ground to the subjectivity of pop-sentimentalism after all. One could be judged to be batshit ugly, without this judgment necessarily reflecting poorly on either you or the evaluator (depending on who is "right"). Reasonable people may have differing tastes. Though it's always a pity when someone you like doesn't have a taste for you, I suppose.

Anyway, I'm all reflected out. I'll leave it to any commentators to figure out the appropriate response to rejection in light of the above. As far as unreflective intuition goes, "forget about it and move on" sounds pretty sensible to my ear. And they do say that our gut reactions are surprisingly reliable. Perhaps not quite so fun, though ;-).


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Sunday, April 30, 2006

Rehabilitating Lust

It's typically assumed that lust is a "shallow" emotion, in contrast to the platonic desires for companionship, affirmation, and so forth. Consider the old stereotype about guys "using" women for sex. Such situations are certainly possible, but isn't it just as possible to "use" a romantic partner for companionship or to boost one's ego? In either case, the "user" has only self-regarding desires, to which their partner is merely instrumental. Why the double standard?

Indeed, it seems that genuine lust is, properly speaking, other-directed. It is a form of aesthetic appreciation, a recognition of -- and hence attraction towards -- another's physical beauty. It is genuinely about them and their qualities. It thus seems as "deep" and appropriately flattering as any other form of romantic appreciation.

Perhaps what critics of lust really have in mind is the self-directed state of feeling horny. There the feeling is all about oneself. One wants sexual release, and doesn't much care where it's found. One's partner is then treated as a mere masturbatory tool, a "sex object" in the most derogatory sense. The other is merely incidental to satisfaction of horniness. But for lust, they are centre stage. This is a crucial difference, and one that makes lust rather more admirable, to my mind.

Even granting that lust is about the other, one might still worry that it is for oneself, and hence in some sense "selfish". This strikes me as doubly mistaken. First, I think there is an important sense of lust which drives one to seek not just one's own sexual pleasure, but also the other's. We might call this "unified lust", as the value it seeks inheres in the whole sexual union, not just the part of one lover alone. Secondly, we should not confuse selfishness with self-concern. Selfishness consists in an inappropriate disregard for others. But one can seek things for oneself whilst also caring about others and seeking their good too, so there is nothing necessarily selfish about this.

But the possibility is there, and perhaps this is the real complaint. It is certainly possible to lust after someone without genuinely caring for the person themselves. So lust may indeed lead one to "use" another for sex without having any intrinsic concern for them. This too is to treat the other as a "sex object", albeit in a slightly less derogatory sense than that previously described. (At least with lust they really are the focal object of one's desire. In the earlier case, they weren't even that. Perhaps "sex instrument" would've been a more accurate term!)

However, this possibility is also present with regard to the platonic attitudes. It is possible to "use" one's friends, after all. In the same way, a selfish agent might enjoy his partner for the way she brightens his life, without thereby caring for her or wanting to advance her interests or happiness. We might say that this is to treat her as a "platonic object".

(We can make a similar distinction to that noted above, between platonic "objects" and "instruments", depending on whether the agent's self-interested desire is directed at the other or merely themselves. Note that instruments are entirely replacable, whereas objects are not. For example, one could use one's partner as merely an instrument to boosting one's own ego. Here your partner is merely incidental to the desire's satisfaction. Anyone else might satisfy the desire just as well. Alternatively, you might have a self-interested "objectual" desire for the companionship of that particular person, in which case no replacement could satisfy that particular desire, and that person is centre-stage rather than oneself.)

I think it is plainly more degrading to be treated as an instrument than an object (though neither is very appealing!), but I see no basis for the double standard between platonic and sexual objectification. Am I missing something here?

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Sunday, April 16, 2006

Dr.B. on Sexual Ethics

Bitch Ph.D. offers a list of her old posts on open marriage and related topics. It's really thought-provoking stuff. There are four posts in particular I'd like to highlight:

The first one describes how she and Mr.B set up the terms of their marriage. Their conversations sound admirably honest and non-possessive.

The second argues that prostitution isn't necessarily wrong. It usually is, due to the exploitation and lack of agency suffered by prostitutes. But "it is not true that all women doing sex work lack agency." And there's nothing wrong with someone freely agreeing to have sex in exchange for money. (Of course if circumstances force them into it, the problem lies with the circumstances, not with the prostitute -- the stigma imposed by middle class sensibilities notwithstanding! The appropriate moral goal is not to abolish all prostitution, but simply to ensure that no-one is in such desperate circumstances that they are effectively forced into doing things against their will.) Compare Dr.B's perspective:

It's flattering as hell that someone is actually interested enough in sleeping with me to cough up a chunk of change, and as I said before, I won't deny that it's fun to think about and will, I suspect, be fun to do, if I do it. But fundamentally it's a way of having a little adventure and making (as someone said) some free money, and I don't, in the end, see anything wrong with that.

Third, her piece on feminism and open marriage puts more clearly one of the central points I saw in favour of open relationships. She writes:
This might sound strange, but it makes perfect sense: ever since we have known one another, Mr. B. and I have agreed that the biggest problem with monogamy is that it preemptively cuts off one possible avenue of growth. You are not allowed to explore this set of feelings, this person, what you can learn here, because it is "wrong." To me, that seems deeply fucked up and inimical to love. I love Mr. B. (even though he is pissing me off this weekend), and he loves me, and therefore why in the earth would we want to put limits on each other? Fooling around, getting crushes on others, or (as I'm doing now) really pursuing relationships and/or fucking other people is a pretty profound learning experience.

And the related point:
The truth, I think, is that it is impossible for one person to be "everything" to someone else. Impossible and, I think, cruel: setting the other person (and, incidentally, yourself) up to fail. In part, this is the answer to the "why open marriage?" question in a nutshell: because I think it is loving to deal with your fear in order not to limit the other person's growth... Now, surely there are people who have such issues with jealousy and fears of betrayal that it is best for them and their partners to agree that there are limits: here, monogamy has its uses. But I think that for most people, garden-variety jealousy and fear is, or can be, or should be, a way to learn: what is it you are afraid of? What is it that you are not getting (or giving)? What does your crush on this other person, or your partner's crush, say about who they are that they didn't know before? In other words, as my friend asked: "what do you get out of 'cheating' that you don't get at home?"

Finally, Dr.B. argues that dishonest cheating isn't always wrong or 'dishonourable'. I'm inclined to disagree. Not because there's anything intrinsically wrong with extra-relational sex, but simply because of the dishonesty involved. If you really want to sleep with someone else, that's cool, but if you can't be honest with your partner about such things then that really casts doubt on the relationship. If they're reasonable, they should be okay with it. And if they're not, then they have the right to make the informed choice to end the relationship. Dishonesty deprives them of this choice, and so reduces their agency, and is disrespectful of them as a person. So again: sleeping around is fine, but lying about it isn't. Do what you want with your body, but don't go deceiving your partner about it.

(We can always imagine exceptions, of course, e.g. if your abusive husband has threatened to kill you if you have an affair. But if things reach the point where your partner doesn't deserve honesty, then it seems to me this is a "relationship" in name only, so the usual normative principles don't apply.)

I didn't disagree with everything in the post, though. Here's one especially challenging idea:
I think sex is, among other things, a form of communication. I presume that anyone who has ever had good, loving sex, knows this. I think that we learn things not only in the generally accepted brain-on-a-stick way, but also through our bodies and our emotions. I know I do. The problem I have with the presumption -- as distinct from the conscious, informed choice -- of sexual fidelity is that I think it closes off one way of learning.

Now, this may be fine. It may be a valid trade off. No one can read every book, no one can study every subject, and no one can learn everything. But I think it is very important, absolutely vital, not to assume on someone else's behalf that they should forego reading books. I'm not talking here about people who want to scold me for my sex life. What I am saying -- and it is polemical -- is that I think that assuming that your partner must remain sexually monogamous to you, assuming that without talking about it, is not a loving thing to do. It is selfish. I reject it. Because, not in defiance of, the idea that partnership and marriage are meaningful acts. This does not mean that I look at people who are monogamous and think they are wrong, or that I am not (do not try to be) understanding of those who find examining these things threatening. It does mean that I think that what we should strive for when we love is acceptance, openness, trust, and understanding. This is why my partner and I agreed, when we married, that infidelity is not grounds for divorce.

And, indeed, one could remain neutral on the relative merits of open vs. monogamous relationships whilst still thinking there's something pernicious about the standard presumption that the norms of the latter apply to each relationship. Really it's something that the couple in question should discuss and decide for themselves.

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Thursday, April 06, 2006

Kids and Open Marriages

Apropos our recent discussion of open relationships, Bitch Ph.D. has a fascinating post about introducing her kid to her boyfriend:

I found it surprisingly easy to be affectionate with the boyfriend with PK around. I was a little worried about that, and had decided that if PK seemed at all uncomfortable, I would be restrained in front of him. But -- and here is the sole nugget of advice-for-parents-who-have-open-marriages that I am capable of offering -- I found that being fairly matter-of-fact about things and behaving naturally, which of course includes making sure PK wasn't ignored, things went just fine. PK seemed quite content with the situation. I'm sure that it was made easier for him, too, by the fact that the boyfriend's friends know the deal, that we went out and about, that we went to J.'s house to play and that PK got to meet other kids: in other words, by the fact that everyone around PK acted like there was nothing to be worried or concerned about. It seems to me that the primary thing young children need is for the adults around them to be reassuringly comfortable with whatever family arrangements there are.

PK's one comment came, finally, as we left at the end of the week. After we'd both waved goodbye to the Connoisseur, and as I stopped the car at the stop sign at the end of the block, PK said, "Mama, why do you love the Connoisseur so much?"

I said, "Well, PK, I just do. When people grow up, they sometimes fall in love with other people who they like very much. Your papa and I fell in love, and we got married, and we had you. And the Connoisseur and I fell in love, too, and that's why I go visit him sometimes."

And PK said, "okay. Mama, can we stop at McDonald's on the drive home?"

Some of the comments are worth a read, too.

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